Originally Posted By: Peter
If we're going to be picky, I'll point out that the property we're discussing isn't actually commutativity, it's distributivity... ;\)


Well... yes. But the basis of the discussion in this case centers around the inversion of numerator and denominator (as you pointed out to Bitt), which carries an implicit reference to division and thus the claim of commutativity or lack thereof.

I love this bbs and the chance to engage in dialog with people who are smarter than I am!

tanstaafl.


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