Well, I don't think that formula gets you out of the dillemma. I am not arguing that it wasn't "wrong". I am only arguing that (as long as others are not involuntarily harmed) it is between them and their conception of "God".

The question is what is the state's role in legislating and enforcing a particular moral code they feel has been revealed by their god. Does belief in a particular god and his revelations give anyone (including the state) the moral authority to impose those standards of behavior (forcefully) upon others? As long as no one else is involved, isn't the proper place for that discussion between them and their God?

If one sees their god as the *only* god, then one will probably answer yes, it is OK to forcefully compel others. That's the same intolerance that led to the inquisitions, 9/11, and many other acts of violent intolerance.